A topological fact tells us that if a topological space X is Hausdorff, then every sequence in X converges to at most one point in X. But what about the converse, i.e. if every sequence in X converges to at most one limit, then X is Hausdorff? If it turns out to be true, could anyone give me some clues for proof? Or, otherwise, a counterexample is desired._________________Few, but ripe.

—- Carl Friedrich Gauss